Irreducibility and recurrence in the discrete-space case

Irreducibility and recurrence are fundamental concepts related to the existence and uniqueness of an invariant measure. We explore such concepts here.

Setting

Here, we always assume that $(X_n)_n$ is a time-homogeneous, discrete-time Markov chain with a discrete state space. We assume the indices are $n=0, 1, 2, \ldots,$ and by discrete space we mean specifically that $\mathcal{X}$ is a countable space with the discrete topology, being either finite or infinite. The one-step transition distribution is denoted by $K(x, y) = \mathbb{P}(X_{n+1} = y | X_n = x),$ independently of $n=0, 1, \ldots,$ while the $n$-step is denoted $K_n(x, y) = \mathbb{P}(X_{k+n} = y | X_k = x),$ for $n=1, 2, \ldots,$ independently of $k=0, 1, \ldots.$

Definitions

We start with some fundamental definitions.

Irreducibility

Definition (Irreducibility)

The chain is called irreducible when

\[ \forall x, y\in\mathcal{X}, \;\exists n=n(x, y)\in\mathbb{N}, \; K_n(x, y) > 0.\]

It is called strongly irreducible when $n(x, y) = 1$ for all $x, y\in\mathcal{X}.$

Irreducibility means that there is a positive probability to go from any one state to any other state, or back to itself, after a finite number of steps. Strong irreducibility means that with positive probability the states are reached after a single time step.

For example, the random walk on the integers $\mathcal{X}=\mathbb{Z}$ defined by $X_{n+1} = X_n + B_n,$ where $B_n$ are Bernoulli i.i.d. with states $+1$ with probability $p$ and $-1$ with probability $1 - p,$ where $0 < p < 1,$ is irreducible, since from any given state $x,$ any other state $y\neq x$ can be reached, with positive probability, in $n = |y - x|$ steps, while if $y = x,$ then two steps are needed.

If the jump is twice larger, i.e. $X_{n+1} = X_n + 2B_n,$, then only states $y$ of same parity as $x$ are reached with positive probability, so this chain is not irreducible.

There are several concepts related to irreducibility.

Connected points

Definition (connected points)

We say that $x$ is connected to $y$ when there exists $n=n(x, y)\in\mathbb{N}$ such that $K_n(x, y) > 0.$ Thus, the chain is recurrent if, and only if, every point is connected to every other point in space.

When $x$ is connected to $y$, we write $x \rightarrow y.$ When $x$ is connected to $y$ and $y$ is connected to $x,$ we write $x \leftrightarrow y.$

Then, we can write that

\[ (X_n)_n \textrm{ is recurrent } \quad \Longleftrightarrow \quad x \rightarrow y, \;\forall x, y\in\mathcal{X} \quad \Longleftrightarrow \quad x \leftrightarrow y, \;\forall x, y\in\mathcal{X}.\]

Return time

Definition (return time)

Given a point $x\in\mathcal{X},$ we define the return time to $x$ by

\[ \tau_x = \inf\left\{n\in\mathbb{N}\cup\{+\infty\}; \; n = \infty \textrm{ or } X_n = x\right\}.\]

The quantity

\[ \mathbb{P}(\tau_x < \infty)\]

is the probability of reaching $x$ in a finite number of steps, while

\[ \mathbb{P}(\tau_y < \infty | X_0 = x)\]

is the probability of reaching $y$ from $x$ in a finite number of steps, and

\[ \mathbb{P}(\tau_x < \infty | X_0 = x)\]

is the *probability of returning to $x$ in a finite number of steps.**

Fact

A point $x$ is connected to $y$ if, and only if, there is a positive probability of reaching $y$ from $x$ in a finite number of steps, which can be written as

\[ x \rightarrow y \quad \Longleftrightarrow \quad \mathbb{P}(\tau_y < \infty | X_0 = x) > 0.\]

Combining these characterizations, we have that

Fact

\[ (X_n)_n \textrm{ is irreducible } \quad \Longleftrightarrow \quad \mathbb{P}(\tau_y < \infty | X_0 = x) > 0, \quad \forall x, y\in\mathcal{X}.\]

Number of passages

Another useful quantity is the random variable denoting the number of passages through a given state $x\in\mathcal{X},$

Definition (number of passages)

The number of passages through a given state $x\in\mathcal{X}$ is defined by

\[ \eta_x = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \mathbb{1}_{\{X_n = x\}}.\]

Notice we did not include the starting time $n=0$ in the definition. Some authors do, while some others don't (e.g. Robert and Casella (2004) don't, while Lawler(2006) does).

When $x$ is connected to $y,$ there is a positive probability that there is at least one passage from $x$ to $y,$ i.e. $\eta_y \geq 1$ is greater than one, with positive probability. Thus, we have the following equivalences.

Fact

\[ x \rightarrow y \quad \Longleftrightarrow \quad \mathbb{P}(\eta_y \geq 1 | X_0 = x) > 0,\]

and

\[ (X_n)_n \textrm{ is recurrent } \quad \Longleftrightarrow \quad \mathbb{P}(\eta_y \geq 1 | X_0 = x) > 0, \quad \forall x, y\in\mathcal{X}.\]

Recurrence and Transience

When the chain starts from a state $x$ and returns to it at a later time, chances are that it will return again and again, due to the Markovian property of the chain. This can be measure by the probability of a state to be visited infinitely often, expressed by

\[ \mathbb{P}(X_n = x \textrm{ infinitely often} | X_0 = x).\]

It turns out that this is either one or zero!

Proposition"

Consider a state $x\in\mathcal{X}.$ Then either

\[ \mathbb{P}(X_n = x \textrm{ infinitely often} | X_0 = x) = 1\]

or

\[ \mathbb{P}(X_n = x \textrm{ infinitely often} | X_0 = x) = 0\]

Proof

Let

\[ q = \mathbb{P}(\tau_x < \infty | X_0 = x).\]

The idea is to show, using the Markovian property, that the probability of having two consecutive visits to $x$ is always $q.$ Then, the probability of having $m$ visits is $q^m.$ Finally, the probability of having infinitely many visits is $\lim_{m\rightarrow \infty} q^m.$ Thus, either $0 \leq q < 1$ and then $\lim_{m\rightarrow \infty} q^m = 0$ or $q = 1$ and $\lim_{m\rightarrow \infty} q^m = 1.$

When the chain is irreducible, every state is attainable from anywhere, including the state itself, so that, due to the time-homogenous assumption, every state is revisited infinitely often. But that doesn't say how significant such visits are, in a probabilistic way. When this happens with probability one, we say the state is recurrent, otherwise we say it is transient.

More precisely, we have the following definition.

Definition (recurrent and transient states)

A state $x$ is called recurrent when

\[ \mathbb{P}(X_n = x \textrm{ infinitely often} | X_0 = x) = 1.\]

Otherwise, the state $x$ is called transient, i.e. if

\[ \mathbb{P}(X_n = x \textrm{ infinitely often} | X_0 = x) < 1.\]

Equivalent definitions of recurrence can be made with the notions of number of passages and return time. In that regard, we have the following result, which we borrow, essentially, from Lawler(2006), except that we do not include the time $n=0$ in the number of passages, so the formula is slightly different.

Theorem

For any state $x\in\mathcal{X},$ we have

\[ x \textrm{ is recurrent } \quad \Longleftrightarrow \quad \mathbb{P}(\tau_x < \infty | X_0 = x) = 1 \quad \Longleftrightarrow \quad \mathbb{E}[\eta_x | X_0 = x] = \infty,\]

and

\[ x \textrm{ is transient } \quad \Longleftrightarrow \quad \mathbb{P}(\tau_x < \infty | X_0 = x) < 1 \quad \Longleftrightarrow \quad \mathbb{E}[\eta_x | X_0 = x] < \infty.\]

Moreover, we have the relation

\[ \mathbb{E}[\eta_x | X_0 = x] = \frac{\mathbb{P}(\tau_x < \infty | X_0 = x)}{\left( 1 - \mathbb{P}(\tau_x < \infty | X_0 = x) \right)^2},\]

with the understanding that the left hand side is infinite wen the probability in the right hand side is 1.

Proof

We have that $\tau_x = \infty$ iff $X_n$ never returns to $x.$ If $\tau_x < \infty,$ then it returns to $x$ in finite time at least once. If $\tau_x < \infty$ with probability one, then, with probability one, it will return again and again to $x,$ still with probability one, since the countable intersection of sets of full measure still has full measure. Thus,

\[ \mathbb{P}(X_n = x \textrm{ infinitely often} | X_0 = x) = 1 \quad \Longleftrightarrow \quad \mathbb{P}(\tau_x < \infty | X_0 = x) = 1.\]

This proves that $x$ is recurrent if, and only if, $\mathbb{P}(\tau_x < \infty | X_0 = x) = 1,$ which is the first part of the equivalence in the recurrence case. The complement of that is precisely that $x$ is transient if, and only if, $\mathbb{P}(\tau_x < \infty | X_0 = x) < 1.$

For the remaining equivalences, let us suppose, first, that $x$ is transient. Then, as we have seen,

\[ q = \mathbb{P}(\tau_x < \infty | X_0 = x) < 1.\]

We compute the expectation of the number of passages by

\[ \begin{align*} \mathbb{E}[\eta_x | X_0 = x] & = \mathbb{E}\left[ \sum_{n=1}^\infty \mathbb{1}_{X_n = x} \bigg| X_0 = x\right] = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \mathbb{E}\left[\mathbb{1}_{X_n = x} \bigg| X_0 = x\right] \\ & = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \mathbb{P}(X_n = x | X_0 = x) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty p_n(x, x). \end{align*}\]

We can also compute this in a different way. Since $\eta_x$ is always an integer, its expectation is given by

\[ \mathbb{E}[\eta_x | X_0 = x] = \sum_{m=1}^\infty m \mathbb{P}(\eta_x = m | X_0 = x).\]

We need a way to calculate $\mathbb{P}(\eta_x = m | X_0 = x),$ for each integer $m\in\mathbb{N}.$ When $\eta_x = m,$ it means it returns to $x$ $m$ times and then it does not return anymore. This means that $\mathbb{P}(\eta_x = m | X_0 = x) = q^m.$ Thus,

\[ \mathbb{E}[\eta_x | X_0 = x] = \sum_{m=1}^\infty m q^m.\]

Let $S = \sum_{m=1}^\infty m q^m,$ so that $qS = \sum_{m=1}^\infty m q^{m+1} = \sum_{m=2}^\infty (m-1)q^m,$ and hence

\[ (1 - q)S = S - qS = q + \sum_{m=1}^\infty q^m = \sum_{m=1}^\infty q^m = \frac{q}{1 - q}.\]

Thus, $S = q / (1 - q)^2,$ which means

\[ \mathbb{E}[\eta_x | X_0 = x] = \frac{\mathbb{P}(\tau_x < \infty | X_0 = x)}{\left(1 - \mathbb{P}(\tau_x < \infty | X_0 = x)\right)^2}.\]

(In Lawler(2006), the number of passages includes the initial time $n=1,$ so that the formula obtained is $1/(1-q),$ instead of $q/(1 - q)^2.$)

When

\[ q = \mathbb{P}(\tau_x < \infty | X_0 = x) = 1,\]

then

\[ \mathbb{P}(\tau_x < \infty | X_0 = x) \geq r,\]

for any $0 < r < 1,$ and we get, similarly, that

\[ \mathbb{E}[\eta_x | X_0 = x] \geq \sum_{m=1}^\infty m r^m = \frac{r}{(1 - r)} \rightarrow \infty,\]

as $r \rightarrow 1,$ so that $\mathbb{E}[\eta_x | X_0 = x] = \infty.$

This proves the identity between the expectation and the probability. In particular, the expectation is finite if, and only if, the probability is strictly less than one, which proves the remaining equivalences.

These equivalences are true, in general, only in the countable case; see page 222 of Robert and Casella (2004).

Another important aspect is that, when the probability of returning infinitely often is smaller than 1, its is actually zero.

Fact

If $x$ is a transient state, then, in fact,

\[ \mathbb{P}(X_n = x \textrm{ infinitely often} | X_0 = x) = 0.\]

In the countable-space case that we are considering, an equivalent definition of recurrence can be made with the notion of return time.

Another equivalent definition of recurrence can be made with the notion number of passages. Indeed, when the chain keeps coming back infinitely often to a state $x,$ counting such times adds up to infinity. When this happens with probability one or even with positive probability, then the expectation of such counts is also infinite. On the other hand, if $x$ is transient, then, in fact, $\mathbb{P}(X_n = x \textrm{ infinitely often} | X_0 = x) = 0,$ so $\eta_x$ is finite almost surely, but that doesn't quise say that its expectation is finite. However, it is true, somehow, that we have the following equivalence.

Fact

A state $x$ is recurrent if, and only if,

\[ \mathbb{E}\left[\eta_x\right | X_0 = x] = \infty.\]

When every state is recurrent we say that the chain is recurrent.

Definition (recurrent chain)

The Markov chain is called recurrent when every state is recurrent, i.e.

\[ \mathbb{P}(X_n = x \textrm{ infinitely often} | X_0 = x) = 1, \quad \forall x\in\mathcal{X}.\]

For instance, we have seen that the random walk $X_{n+1} = X_n + B_n,$ where $B_n$ are Bernoulli i.i.d. with states $+1$ with probability $p$ and $-1$ with probability $1 - p,$ where $0 < p < 1,$ but it is not recurrent. For any $x, \in\mathcal{X}=\mathbb{Z}$ and $n\in\mathbb{N},$ the transition probability $K_n(x, y)$ is zero if $|y - x|$ and $n$ have different parity or when $n < |y - x|,$ and is given by the binomial distribution

\[ p_n(m) = \begin{pmatrix} n \\ i \end{pmatrix} p^i(1-p)^j,\]

with

\[ i = \frac{n + m}{2}, \quad j = n - i = \frac{n - m}{2}, \quad m = y - x,\]

when

\[ |m| \leq n, \quad m, n \textrm{ with same parity}\]

Thus, we can write

\[ K_n(x, y) = \begin{cases} \begin{pmatrix} n \\ \frac{n + y - x}{2} \end{pmatrix} p^{(n+y-x)/2}(1-p)^{(n + x - y)/2}, & |x - y| \leq n, \; x - y, n \textrm{ same parity}, \\ 0, & \textrm{otherwise}. \end{cases}\]

In particular, the probability of returning to $x$ is

\[ K_n(x, x) = \begin{cases} \begin{pmatrix} n \\ \frac{n}{2} \end{pmatrix} p^{n/2}(1-p)^{n/2}, & n \textrm{ is even}, \\ 0, & \textrm{otherwise}. \end{cases}\]

We have

\[ \{X_n = x \textrm{ infinitely often} | X_0 = x\} = \bigcap_{n \in\mathbb{N}}\bigcup_{m \geq n, m\in \mathbb{N}} \{X_m = x | X_0 = x\}.\]

Thus, by the Borel-Cantelli Lemma,

\[ \mathbb{P}\left(X_n = x \textrm{ infinitely often} | X_0 = x\right) = 0,\]

since

\[ \sum_{n\in\mathbb{N}} \mathbb{P}\left(X_m = x | X_0 = x\right) = \sum_{n\in\mathbb{N}, n \textrm{ even}} \begin{pmatrix} n \\ \frac{n}{2} \end{pmatrix} p^{n/2}(1-p)^{n/2} = \sum_{n\in\mathbb{N}} \begin{pmatrix} 2n \\ n \end{pmatrix} p^n(1-p)^n \leq \sum_{n\in\mathbb{N}} \frac{(2n)!}{2(n!)} (1/2)^n\]

Existence of invariant distribution

Theorem

Suppose that, for some $x\in\mathcal{X},$

\[ \mathbb{E}[\tau_{x} | X_0 = x] < \infty.\]

Then

\[ P_x(z) = \frac{1}{\mathbb{E}[\tau_{x} | X_0 = x]} \sum_{n=1}^\infty \mathbb{P}(X_n = z, \tau_{x} \geq n | X_0 = x)\]

defines an invariant probability distribution for the Markov chain.

The proof below is adapted from Theorem 6.37 of Robert and Casella (2004). Notice we are not assuming irreducibility, so we are not claiming that this invariant distribution is unique.

Proof

For the proof, we consider, for the sake of simplicity, the unnormalized measure

\[ {\tilde P}_x(z) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \mathbb{P}(X_n = z, \tau_{x} \geq n | X_0 = x).\]

We show that it defines a positive and finite invariant measure, with ${\tilde P}_x(\mathcal{X}) = \mathbb{E}[\tau_{x} | X_0 = x].$ After that, we obtain the desired result by normalizing ${\tilde P}_x$ by the expectation $\mathbb{E}[\tau_{x} | X_0 = x].$

First of all, since the space is discrete and each ${\tilde P}_x(z) \geq 0,$ for $z\in\mathcal{X},$ it follows that ${\tilde P}_x$ defines indeed a measure on $\mathcal{X}.$ Let us check that ${\tilde P}_x$ is in fact a nontrivial and finite measure. We have

\[ \begin{align*} {\tilde P}_x(\mathcal{X}) & = \sum_{z\in\mathcal{X}} P_x(z) \\ & = \sum_{z\in\mathcal{X}}\sum_{n=1}^\infty \mathbb{P}(X_n = z, \tau_{x} \geq n | X_0 = x) \\ & = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \sum_{z\in\mathcal{X}} \mathbb{P}(X_n = z, \tau_{x} \geq n | X_0 = x) \\ & = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \mathbb{P}( \tau_{x} \geq n | X_0 = x) \\ & = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \sum_{m=n}^\infty \mathbb{P}(\tau_{x} = m | X_0 = x) \\ & = \sum_{m=1}^\infty \sum_{n=1}^{m} \mathbb{P}(\tau_{x} = m | X_0 = x) \\ & = \sum_{m=1}^\infty m \mathbb{P}(\tau_{x} = m | X_0 = x) \\ & = \mathbb{E}[\tau_{x} | X_0 = x] \end{align*}\]

Since it is assumed that

\[ \mathbb{E}[\tau_{x} | X_0 = x] < \infty,\]

it follows that the measure ${\tilde P}$ is finite. And since, by definition, $\tau_x$ is an integer with $1 \leq \tau_x \leq +\infty,$ the measure is non-trivial, i.e. it is positive, with

\[ 1 \leq {\tilde P}(\mathcal{X}) < \infty.\]

In particular,

\[ \begin{align*} {\tilde P}(\mathcal{x}) & = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \mathbb{P}(X_n = x, \tau_{x} \geq n | X_0 = x) \\ & = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \mathbb{P}(X_n = x, \tau_{x} = n | X_0 = x) \\ & = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \mathbb{P}(\tau_{x} \geq n | X_0 = x) \\ & = \mathbb{P}(\cup_{n\in\mathbb{N}} \{\tau_{x} = n | X_0 = x\}) \\ & = \mathbb{P}(\tau_{x} < \infty | X_0 = x). \end{align*}\]

The condition

\[ \mathbb{E}[\tau_{x} | X_0 = x] < \infty.\]

implies that $\tau_{x}$ must be finite almost surely, so that

\[ {\tilde P}(\mathcal{x}) = \mathbb{P}(\tau_{x} < \infty | X_0 = x) = 1.\]

Now, let us check that ${\tilde P}_x$ is invariant. We need to show that

\[ \sum_{y\in\mathcal{X}} K(y, z){\tilde P}_x(y) = {\tilde P}_x(z),\]

for every $z\in\mathcal{X}.$ For that, we write

\[ \begin{align*} \sum_{y\in\mathcal{X}} K(y, z){\tilde P}_x(y) & = \sum_{y\in\mathcal{X}} K(y, z)\sum_{n=1}^\infty \mathbb{P}(X_n = y, \tau_{x} \geq n | X_0 = x) \\ & = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \sum_{y\in\mathcal{X}} K(y, z) \mathbb{P}(X_n = y, \tau_{x} \geq n | X_0 = x) \end{align*}\]

We split the sum according to $y=x$ and $y\neq x,$ so that

\[ \begin{align*} \sum_{y\in\mathcal{X}} K(y, z){\tilde P}_x(y) & = \sum_{n=1}^\infty K(x, z) \mathbb{P}(X_n = x, \tau_{x} \geq n | X_0 = x) \\ & \qquad + \sum_{n=1}^\infty \sum_{y\neq x} K(y, z) \mathbb{P}(X_n = y, \tau_{x} \geq n | X_0 = x) \\ & = K(x, z) {\tilde P}(x) + \sum_{n=1}^\infty \sum_{y\neq x} \mathbb{P}(X_{n+1} = z, X_n = y, \tau_{x} \geq n | X_0 = x) \\ \end{align*}\]

For $y\neq z,$ we have

\[ \mathbb{P}(X_{n+1} = z, X_n = y, \tau_{x} \geq n | X_0 = x) = \mathbb{P}(X_{n+1} = z, X_n = y, \tau_{x} \geq n+1 | X_0 = x).\]

Thus,

\[ \begin{align*} \sum_{y\in\mathcal{X}} K(y, z){\tilde P}_x(y) & = K(x, z) {\tilde P}(x) + \sum_{n=1}^\infty \sum_{y\neq x} \mathbb{P}(X_{n+1} = z, X_n = y, \tau_{x} \geq n+1 | X_0 = x) \\ & = K(x, z) {\tilde P}(x) + \sum_{n=1}^\infty \mathbb{P}(X_{n+1} = z, \tau_{x} \geq n+1 | X_0 = x) \\ & = K(x, z) {\tilde P}(x) + \sum_{n=2}^\infty \mathbb{P}(X_{n} = z, \tau_{x} \geq n | X_0 = x), \end{align*}\]

where in the last step we just reindexed the summation. Now we use that ${\tilde P}(x) = 1$ (as proved above) and that

\[ K(x, z) = \mathbb{P}(X_1 = z | X_0 = x) = \mathbb{P}(X_1 = z, \tau_{x} \geq 1 | X_0 = x)\]

(since $\tau_{x} \geq 1$ always), to obtain

\[ \begin{align*} \sum_{y\in\mathcal{X}} K(y, z){\tilde P}_x(y) & = \mathbb{P}(X_1 = z, \tau_{x} \geq 1 | X_0 = x) + \sum_{n=2}^\infty \mathbb{P}(X_{n} = z, \tau_{x} \geq n | X_0 = x) \\ & = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \mathbb{P}(X_{n} = z, \tau_{x} \geq n | X_0 = x) \\ & = {\tilde P}(z), \end{align*}\]

proving the invariance.

Now, as mentioned above, since ${\tilde P}(\mathcal{X}) = \mathbb{E}[\tau_{x} | X_0 = x]$ is finite and positive, we can normalize ${\tilde P}$ by this expectation to obtain the invariant probability distribution

\[ P(z) = \frac{1}{\mathbb{E}[\tau_{x} | X_0 = x]} \sum_{n=1}^\infty \mathbb{P}(X_{n} = z, \tau_{x} \geq n | X_0 = x).\]

Kac's Theorem on invariant distribution of an irreducible chain

Kac's Theorem says that if $(X_n)_n$ is irreducible and it has a stationary distribution $P,$ then

\[ P(x) = \frac{1}{\mathbb{E}[\tau_x | X_n = x]}, \quad \forall x\in\mathcal{X}.\]

The idea is that, $m_x = \mathbb{E}[\tau_x | X_n = x]$ is the average time that the chain takes to start from $x$ and come back to $x.$ Every state $x$ is visited repeatedly, with an average time of $m_x$ between consecutive visits.

Irreducibility in the discrete-space case

In the discrete-space case, $P$-irreducibility can be stated with point sets, so that the Markov chain is $P$-irreducible if, and only if,

\[ x, y\in\mathcal{X},\; P(y) > 0 \Longrightarrow \exists n=n(x, y)\in\mathbb{N}, \; K_n(x, y) > 0.\]

Positivity of an invariant probability distribution

If a discrete-space Markov chain has an invariant probability distribution $P$ and it is $P$-irreducible, then $P$ must be everywhere strictly positive, i.e. $P(x) > 0,$ for all $x\in \mathcal{X}.$

Indeed, since $P$ is nontrivial, there exists $y\in\mathcal{X}$ such that $P(y) > 0.$ Now, for any $x,$ since the chain is $P$ irreducible, we have $K_n(x, y) > 0,$ for some $n\in\mathbb{N}.$

Since $P$ is invariant, we have $P K_n = P,$ and then

\[ P(x) = \sum_{z\in\mathcal{X}} K_n(z, x) P(z).\]

This can be estimated from below by restricting the summation to $z = y,$ so that

\[ P(x) = \sum_{z\in\mathcal{X}} K_n(z, x) P(z) \geq K_n(y, x) P(z) > 0,\]

where we used that $K_n(y, x) > 0$ and $P(z) > 0.$ Thus,

\[ P(x) > 0, \quad \forall x\in\mathcal{X},\]

showing that $P$ is everywhere strictly positive.

Uniqueness of the invariant probability distribution

Suppose, again, that we have a finite-state Markov chain with an invariant probability distribution $P$ which is $P$-irreducible. We have just seen that $P$ must be everywhere strictly positive, i.e. $P(x) > 0,$ for all $x\in \mathcal{X}.$ We now use this to show that the invariant probability distribution must be unique.

References

  1. C. P. Robert, G. Casella (2004), "Monte Carlo Statistical Methods", Second Edition, Springer Texts in Statistics, Springer New York, NY
  2. G. F. Lawler(2006), "Introduction to Stochastic Processes", 2nd Edition. Chapman and Hall/CRC, New York.